Segment 1: MCQs on the Information Technology Act, 2000
1. What is the main objective of the Information Technology Act, 2000? a) To promote international trade b) To provide legal recognition for electronic transactions c) To regulate banking laws d) To establish foreign trade relations
Answer: b) To provide legal recognition for electronic transactions Explanation: The preamble of the IT Act, 2000, states that its purpose is to grant legal recognition to electronic records and digital signatures. [Section 1 of the Act] lays out the objective. [Landmark Case: Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, 2015] emphasized the scope and aim of digital legislation.
2. Under the IT Act, 2000, which section defines “electronic record”? a) Section 2(e) b) Section 2(ha) c) Section 2(t) d) Section 3(a)
Answer: c) Section 2(t) Explanation: Section 2(t) of the IT Act defines “electronic record” as data, record, or data generated, sent, received, or stored in an electronic form.
3. Which section of the IT Act deals with the authentication of electronic records? a) Section 3 b) Section 7 c) Section 12 d) Section 14
Answer: a) Section 3 Explanation: Section 3 provides the legal framework for authenticating electronic records using digital signatures. The Supreme Court in P.V. Anwar v. P.K. Basheer (2014) discussed electronic evidence and its authentication.
4. Which section governs the punishment for identity theft under the IT Act, 2000? a) Section 65 b) Section 66C c) Section 67 d) Section 69
Answer: b) Section 66C Explanation: Section 66C prescribes punishment for identity theft, defining it as fraudulently or dishonestly using another person’s digital signature, password, or other unique identification feature.
5. Under the IT Act, which section empowers the government to intercept information? a) Section 69 b) Section 66A c) Section 71 d) Section 80
Answer: a) Section 69 Explanation: Section 69 empowers the central or state government to intercept, monitor, or decrypt any information if necessary for public safety, defense, or to prevent an offense. This provision was upheld in PUCL v. Union of India (1997).
6. Which section prescribes punishment for publishing or transmitting obscene material in electronic form? a) Section 66E b) Section 67 c) Section 68 d) Section 72
Answer: b) Section 67 Explanation: Section 67 penalizes publishing or transmitting obscene material electronically. The case Avnish Bajaj v. State (Bazee.com case) explored liability under this section.
7. Digital signatures are recognized under which section of the IT Act? a) Section 3 b) Section 4 c) Section 10 d) Section 12
Answer: a) Section 3 Explanation: Section 3 explicitly mentions the use of digital signatures for authenticating electronic records.
8. Which authority is established under the IT Act for adjudication of cyber disputes? a) Cyber Appellate Tribunal b) Cyber Regulatory Board c) Adjudicating Officer d) Digital Evidence Tribunal
Answer: c) Adjudicating Officer Explanation: Section 46 establishes the Adjudicating Officer to resolve disputes and claims involving compensation for contraventions under the Act.
9. What does Section 72 of the IT Act deal with? a) Breach of confidentiality and privacy b) Interception of information c) Cyberstalking d) Hacking
Answer: a) Breach of confidentiality and privacy Explanation: Section 72 penalizes unauthorized access and disclosure of information. It was invoked in the Vishaka Guidelines case to discuss privacy rights.
10. Which section of the IT Act governs data protection? a) Section 43A b) Section 46 c) Section 66 d) Section 72
Answer: a) Section 43A Explanation: Section 43A mandates that corporations protect sensitive personal data and imposes liability for negligent handling.
11. Which section was declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in Shreya Singhal v. Union of India? a) Section 66A b) Section 69 c) Section 67A d) Section 72
Answer: a) Section 66A Explanation: The Supreme Court struck down Section 66A for being vague and violating the right to freedom of speech under Article 19(1)(a).
12. Which section deals with securing electronic governance? a) Section 3 b) Section 5 c) Section 6 d) Section 8
Answer: c) Section 6 Explanation: Section 6 facilitates the use of electronic records and digital signatures in government transactions to promote e-governance.
13. Which section of the IT Act ensures the admissibility of electronic records as evidence? a) Section 65B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 b) Section 66B of the IT Act c) Section 68 of the IT Act d) Section 2A of the Evidence Act
Answer: a) Section 65B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 Explanation: Though not directly part of the IT Act, Section 65B governs the admissibility of electronic records, discussed in Anvar P.V. v. P.K. Basheer (2014).
14. What is the minimum penalty for causing damage to a computer under Section 43? a) ₹10,000 b) ₹50,000 c) ₹1,00,000 d) No limit, determined by the Adjudicating Officer
Answer: d) No limit, determined by the Adjudicating Officer Explanation: Section 43 imposes liability for unauthorized access, with compensation determined case-by-case by the adjudicating authority.
15. Which chapter of the IT Act discusses penalties and adjudication? a) Chapter IX b) Chapter VIII c) Chapter VII d) Chapter XI
Answer: a) Chapter IX Explanation: Chapter IX (Sections 43-47) covers penalties and adjudication for contraventions under the Act.
16. Under which section can a network service provider claim exemption from liability? a) Section 78 b) Section 79 c) Section 80 d) Section 75
Answer: b) Section 79 Explanation: Section 79 provides conditional exemption to intermediaries if they observe due diligence and avoid direct involvement in illegal activities.
17. Which section relates to the protection of children from harmful online content? a) Section 67B b) Section 66E c) Section 69A d) Section 67A
Answer: a) Section 67B Explanation: Section 67B prohibits and penalizes the publishing or transmission of material depicting children in sexually explicit acts.
18. Which section allows blocking of public access to certain information in the interest of sovereignty? a) Section 67 b) Section 69A c) Section 72 d) Section 75
Answer: b) Section 69A Explanation: Section 69A allows the government to block public access to information that could harm sovereignty, security, or public order.
19. Cyber terrorism is defined under which section? a) Section 66F b) Section 67C c) Section 68 d) Section 71
Answer: a) Section 66F Explanation: Section 66F defines and penalizes cyber terrorism, a serious offense under the Act.
20. Under which section can an individual appeal a decision by the adjudicating officer? a) Section 48 b) Section 57 c) Section 66 d) Section 70
Answer: b) Section 57 Explanation: Section 57 provides the procedure for appealing against decisions of the adjudicating officer to the Cyber Appellate Tribunal.
