101. Which of the following is the way to assess damage under Section 12,
Indian Evidence Act?
I. The damage suffered should be near as possible to the sum which will put the injured
party in the same position as he would have been if he had not sustained the wrong for
which he was awarded damages or compensation
II. Damages are usually assessed on the basis of actual loss suffered and are called
general or ordinary damages
III. Where the plaintiff has not suffered any real damages by reason of breach of
contract, normally, nominal damages are awarded
IV. Special damages can be awarded for personal inconveniences or physical dis-comfort
caused by the other party
A. I, III and IV
B. II, III and IV
C. I, II and IV
D. all of them
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102. The principle on which a dying declaration is admitted in evidence is
indicated in legal maxim:
A. Nemo moriturus proesumitur mentiri
B. Lex fori
C. Res judica
D. None of them
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103. The proviso to the Section 65, Indian Evidence Act has been added by
which of the following Act?
A. Act XXXI of 1926
B. Act XXII of 1926
C. Act XIII of 1926
D. Act XIV of 1926
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104. To invoke the doctrine of estoppel which of the following condition
must be satisfied?
A. Representation by a person to another
B. The other shall have acted upon the said representation
C. Such person shall have been detrimental to the interest of the person to whom the
representation has been made
D. All of them
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105. Under Section 82, Indian Evidence Act the Court must presume:
A. That the seal or stamp or signature is genuine
B. That the person signing the document held, at the time when he signed, the judicial
or official character he claims
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of them
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106. What is direct evidence?
I. Evidence given where witness testifies directly of his own knowledge as to the main
fact or facts in dispute
II. That which tends to prove the fact at issue without the intervention of proof of any
other fact
III. One requiring no support by other evidence
IV. When the principal fact, or factum probandum, is attested directly by witnesses,
things or documents
A. I, II
B. III, IV
C. II, III, IV
D. all of them
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107. Which of the following are true for Section 27, Indian Evidence Act?
I. There must be information
II. It does not matter whether the information amounts to confession or not
III. That person must be whether the information amounts to confession or not
IV. In consequence of the information a fact must be deposed to as discovered
V. In such a case so much of the information as relates distinctly to the fact thereby
discovered may be proved
A. I, III and V
B. II, III and V
C. Ill, IV and V
D. All of them
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108. Which of the following is true concerning retracted confession?
A. It is the law that once a confession is retracted, the Court should presume that it was
tainted and be thrown overboard
B. The retracted confession of co-accused is very weak and if retracted, the same is
admissible against the maker of it
C. The Court is bound to take the factum of retraction of confession
D. Retracted confession must be looked upon with lesser concern
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109. Which class of persons does Section 18, Indian Evidence Act lies down
who can make admissions?
I. Party to the proceeding
II. Agent authorised by a party
III. Party suing or sued in a representative character, making admissions while holding
such character
IV. Persons who has any proprietary or pecuniary interest in the subject-matter of the
proceedings, during the continuance of such interest
V. Persons from whom the parties to the suit have derived their interest in the subject-
matter of the suit, during the continuance of such interest
A. I and III
B. II
C. IV and V
D. All of them
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110. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with
admission by person from whom interest is derived?
A. Section 12
B. Section 16
C. Section 13
D. Section 18
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