Type Here to Get Search Results !

MCQ on Constitution of India

The Cabinet Mission to India was headed by:
(a) Stafford Cripps
(b) A.V. Alexander
(c) Lord Pethick Lawrence
(d) Hugh Gaitskell

The Correct Answer is option:(c)

The Constitution of India was adopted by the:
(a) Governor General
(b) British Parliament
(c) Constituent Assembly
(d) Parliament of India

The Correct Answer is option:(c)

The Constituent Assembly for undivided India first met on
(a) 6th December, 1946
(b) 9th December, 1946
(c) 20th February, 1947
(d) 3rd June, 1947

The Correct Answer is option:(b)

When the Constituent Assembly for the Dominion of India reassembled on 31 st October, 1947, its reduced membership was:
(a) 299
(b) 311
(c) 319
(d) 331

The Correct Answer is option:(a)

Who among the following was the Constitutional adviser to the Constituent Assembly of India?

(a) Dr. B.N. Rao
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) K.M. Munshi
(d) M.C. Setalvad

The Correct Answer is option:(a)

The Constitution of India was enacted by a Constituent Assembly set up :
(a) under the Indian Independence Act, 1947
(b) under the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946
(c) through a resolution of the provisional government
(d) by the Indian National Congress

The Correct Answer is option:(b)

The Constituent Assembly which framed the Constitution for Independent India was set up in :
(a) 1945
(b) 1946
(c) 1947
(d) 1949

The Correct Answer is option:(b)

Who presided over the inaugural meeting of the Constituent Assembly of India?
(a) Sachidananda Sinha
(b) B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) P. Upendra

The Correct Answer is option:(a)

Who among the following was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) Tej Bahadur Sapru
(c) C. Rajagopalachari
(d) B. R. Ambedkar

The Correct Answer is option:(d)

How long did the Constituent Assembly take to finally pass the Constitution?
(a) about 6 months in 1949
(b) exactly a year since Nov 26, 1948
(c) about 2 years since Aug 15, 1947
(d) about 3 years since Dec 9, 1946

The Correct Answer is option:(d)

11.Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(d) C. Rajagopalachari

The Correct Answer is option:(b)

The demand for the Constituent Assembly was put forward by the Indian National Congress in 1936 at its session held at :
(a) Kanpur
(b) Bombay
(c) Lucknow
(d) Lahore

The Correct Answer is option:(c)

The Constituent Assembly arrived at decisions on the various provisions of the Constitution:
(a) by a majority vote
(b) by a two-thirds majority
(c) by consensus
(d) unanimously

The Correct Answer is option:(c)

The most profound influence on the drafting of the Indian Constitution was exercised by the
(a) U.S. Constitution
(b) British Constitution
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) French ideals of Liberty and Fraternity

The Correct Answer is option:(c)

Match the following:
Committees of Constituent Assembly and Chairmen
A. Drafting Committee 1. Vallabhbhai PateI
B. Committee on Fundamental and Minority Rights 2. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. Union Constitution Committee 3. Kanhiyalal Munshi
D. Working Committee 4. B.R. Ambedkar
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 4 1 2 3

The Correct Answer is option:(d)

Which one of the following statements is correct :
(a) The Constituent Assembly of India was elected by the Provincial Assemblies in the year 1946
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru; M.A. Jinnah and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were members of the Constituent Assembly of India
(c) The First Session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held in January, 1947
(d) The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th January, 1950

The Correct Answer is option:(a)

March the following:
A. July 22, 1947 1. Adoption of National Song by the Constituent Assembly
B. January 24, 1950 2. Adoption of National Emblem by the Government
C. January 26, 1950 3. Adoption of National Calendar by the Government
D. March 22, 1957 4. Adoption of National Flag by the Constituent Assembly
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 2 1 3 4

The Correct Answer is option:(a)

Which of the following is/are correctly matched?
I. India's National Song-Vande Mataram
II. India s National Flower-Rose
III. India's National Animal-Tiger
IV. India's National Bird-Eagle
(a) I and IV
(b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I and III

The Correct Answer is option:(d)

The design of the National Flag was adopted by the Constitutent Assembly of India in:
(a) July, 1948
(b) July, 1950
(c) July, 1947
(d) August, 1947

The Correct Answer is option:(c)

Which of the following are the principal features of Government of India Act, 1919? 1.Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces.
2.Introduction of separate communal electorate for Muslims.
3.Devolution of legislative authority by the Centre to the Provinces.
4.Expansion and reconstitution of Central and Provincial Legislatures.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4

The Correct Answer is option:(d)

Which of the following proved to be the most short lived of all the British constitutional experiments in India?
(a) Government of India Act, 1919
(b) Indian Council Act, 1909
(c) Pitt's India Act, 1784
(d) Government of India Act, 1935

The Correct Answer is option:(a)

Which one of the following Acts formally introduced the principles of elections for the first time?
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947

The Correct Answer is option:(a)

Which of the following features do not contribute to making the Indian Constitution the bulkiest in the world?
I. Various types of emergencies are considered in detail.
II. It codifies the rights and privileges of the members of Parliament and State Legislatures.
III. It enumerates all types of Indian citizenship and how it can be terminated. IV. It contains not only a list of fundamental rights but also the restrictions to be placed on them.
(a) I and II
(b) I and IV
(c) II and III (d) II, III and IV

The Correct Answer is option:(c)

Which of the following statements is/are not correct about the Objectives Resolution? I. It was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in the Constituent Assembly.
II. It called for just rights for minorities. III. It formed the basis for the chapter on Fundamental Rights.
IV. It called for the establishment of a socialist and secular polity.
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) Only III

The Correct Answer is option:(c)

25.Which of the following items is wrongly matched?
(a) December 9, 1947-Constituent Assemby's first meeting
(b) November 26, 1949-the people of India adopted, enacted and gave to themselves the Constitution
(c) January 24,' 1950-the Constitution was finally signed by the members of the Constituent Assembly
(d) January 26, 1950-the date of commencement of the Constitution

The Correct Answer is option:(a)

Which of the following provisions of the Constitution came into force from November 26, 1949 ?
I. Provisions relating to citizenship.
II. Provisions relating to elections.
III. Provisions relating to provisional Parliament.
IV. Fundamental Rights.
(a) I and II
(b) I, III and IV
(c) I, II and III
(d) None

The Correct Answer is option:(c)

Which of the following Acts gave representation to Indians for the first time in the Legislature?
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) None of the above

The Correct Answer is option:(c)

The Crown took the Government of India into its own hands by :
(a) Charter Act, 1833
(b) Government of India Act, 1858
(c) Indian Council Act, 1861
(d) Government of India Act, 1935

The Correct Answer is option:(b)

Consider the following statements.
The Indian Constitution is :
(1) unwritten Constitution.
(2) written Constitution.
(3) largely based on Government of India Act, 1935.


(a) 2 and 1 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 2 are correct
(d) 1 and 3 are correct

The Correct Answer is option:(b)

The Indian Constitution establishes a secular state, meaning:
I.the State treats all religions equally. II.freedom of faith and worship is allowed to all the people.
III.educational institutions, without exception, are free to impart religious instruction.
IV. the State makes no discrimination on the basis of religion in matters of employment. (a) I and II
(b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, II and IV

The Correct Answer is option:(d)

The nationalist demand for a Constituent Assembly was for the first time conceded by the British Government, though indirectly and with reservations in the:
(a) Cripps proposals
(b) August Offer
(c) Cabinet Mission Plan
(d) Act of 1935

The Correct Answer is option:(b)

Which of the following was adopted from the Maurya dynasty in the emblem of Government of India?
(a) Four lions
(b) Chariot wheel
(c) Horse
(d) Words 'Satyameva Jayate’

The Correct Answer is option:(a)

The office of Governor General of India was created by:
(a) Charter Act, 1813
(b) Charter Act, 1833
(c) Government of India Act, 1858
(d) Government of India Act, 1935

The Correct Answer is option:(c)

Who among the following is known as the Father of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Vallabhbhai PateI

The Correct Answer is option:(a)

When did Mr. Attlee, Prime Minister of England, announce the transfer of power to the Indians?
(a) February, 1947
(b) August, 1947
(c) June, 1948
(d) June, 1949

The Correct Answer is option:(c)

Who proposed the Preamble before the Drafting Committee of the Constitution?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) B.N. Rao
(d) Mahatma Gandhi

The Correct Answer is option:(a)

37.Which of the following is correct regarding the Indian Constitution?
(a) It is completely based on British Constitution
(b) It is made only on the basis of Government of India Act, 1935
(c) It is a mixture of several Constitutions (d) It is original

The Correct Answer is option:(c)

Match the following:

A. Govt. of India Act, 1919 1. Provincial autonomy
B. Govt. of India Act, 1935 2. Separate Electorate
C. Minto-Morley Reforms 3. Dyarchy
D. Cabinet Mission Plan 4. Constituent Assembly
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 3 1 2 4

The Correct Answer is option:(d)

The amendment procedure laid down in the Constitution of India is on the pattern of?
(a) Government of India Act, 1935
(b) Government of India Act, 1947
(c) Constitution of South Africa
(d) Constitution of UK

The Correct Answer is option:(c)

40.The first session of the Constituent Assembly was held in :
(a) Bombay
(b) Calcutta
(c) Lahore
(d) New Delhi

The Correct Answer is option:(d)

Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) J.B. Kripalani
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar

The Correct Answer is option:(c)

Who among the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Acharya J.B. Kriplani
(c) Lok Nayak Jayprakash Narayan
(d) K.M. Munshi

The Correct Answer is option:(c)

Which among the following is/are the feature (s) of a Federal State?
1.The powers of the Central and the State (Constituent Unit) Governments are clearly laid down
2.It has an unwritten Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

The Correct Answer is option:(a)

Who was the first Foreign Minister of free India?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Gulzari Lal Nanda
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(d) John Mathai

The Correct Answer is option:(a)

Under whom among the following was the first draft of the Constitution of India prepared in October 1947 by the advisory branch of the office of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) K.M. Munshi
(d) B.N. Rau

The Correct Answer is option:(d)

Which one among the following is a fundamental duty of citizens under the Constitution of India?
(a) To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring countries
(b) To protect monuments of national importance
(c) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so (d) To know more and more about the history of India

The Correct Answer is option:(c)

The first effort at drafting a Dominion Status Constitution for India was made in response to the :
(a) Minto-Morley Reforms
(b) Montague-Chelmsford Reforms
(c) Simon Commission
(d) First Round Table Conference

The Correct Answer is option:(c)

The Constitution of India divided the states of India in categories A. B. C. and D in the year 1950. In this context which of the following statements is correct


(a) The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Governor was the executive head of categories C and D state

 (b) The Pajpramukh was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories Band C states. The Governor was the executive head of the category D states. 

(c) The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories C and D states.


(d) The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category B states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of categories C and D states.

The Correct Answer is option:(c)

The Constitution of India was promulgated on January 26, 1950 because: (a) this day was being celebrated as the Independence Day since 1929
(b) it was the wish of the framers of the Constitution
(c) the British did not want to leave India earlier than this date
(d) it was an auspicious day

Ans: (a)

The idea of the Constitution of India was first of all given by :
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) M.N. Roy

The Correct Answer is option:(d)

The members of the Constituent Assembly were:
(a) elected by Provincial Assemblies
(b) elected directly by people
(c) nominated by the government
(d) only representatives of the princely States

The Correct Answer is option:(a)

Which of the following statements regarding the' Constituent Assembly are true?
1.It was not based on Adult Franchise.
2.It resulted from direct elections.
3.It was a multi-party body.
4.It worked through several Committees.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

The Correct Answer is option:(c)

Who among the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly established in July 1946?
(a) Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) K.M. Munshi
(d) J.B. Kripalani

The Correct Answer is option:(b)

India became a Sovereign, democratic republic on :
(a) Aug 15, 1947
(b) Jan 30, 1948
(c) Jan 26, 1950
(d) Nov 26, 1929

The Correct Answer is option:(c)

Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral:
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947

The Correct Answer is option:(b)

The first attempt at introducing a representative and popular element in administration was made by :
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1900
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Councils Act, 1919

The Correct Answer is option:(b)

The Government of India Act, 1935 vested the residuary power in the:
(a) British Parliament
(b) Federal Legislature
(c) State Legislature
(d) Governor-General

The Correct Answer is option:(d)

Which of the following was not one of the features of Government of India Act, 1935 ?
(a) Provincial autonomy
(b) Dyarchy of centre
(c) Bicameral Legislature
(d) All India federation

The Correct Answer is option:(c)

Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India?
(a) Indian Council Act, 1909
(b) Montague-Chelmsford Reforms Act, 1919 (c) Charter Act, 1831
(d) Government of India Act, 1935

The Correct Answer is option:(d)

What was the main stipulation of Government of India Act, 1935 ?
(a) A federation was suggested
(b) Unitary form of government was recommended
(c) Complete independence guaranteed
(d) Dyarchy was made applicable at provincial level

The Correct Answer is option:(c)

The Constituent Assembly commenced its business with Dr Rajendra Prasad as its

(a) Chairman

(b) Speaker

(c) President

(d) Dy. Speaker

Answer [C]

Which of the following statements is not true in case of M.N. Roy?

(a) He prepared a model constitution for free India.

(b) Sovereign power was to be vested in the people.

(c) People’s committees to be set up in villages, towns and cities.

(d) He did not concede the right of secession to its constituent units.

Correct Answer is option [D] 

The Constitution is declared to have been adopted and enacted by the

(a) Constituent Assembly

(b) People of India

(c) Indian Parliament

(d) British Parliament

 Correct Answer is option [B] 

The Constitution of India came into force on

(a) 15 Aug 1947

(b) 26 Jan 1950

(c) 26 Jan 1947

(d) 15 Aug 1950

Correct Answer is option [B]

The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on

(a) 11 Dec 1946

(b) 15 Aug 1957

(c) 26 Nov 1950

(d) 26 Nov 1949

Correct Answer is option [D] 

The greatest impact on the Constitution of India was left by

(a) Government of India Act, 1935

(b) Constitution of USA

(c) Constitution of UK

(d) Constitution of Canada

Correct Answer is option [A] 

 The most short-lived of all the Britain’s Constitutional experiments in India was the

(a) Indian Councils Act of 1861

(b) Indian Councils Act of 1892

(c) Indian Councils Act of 1909

(d) Govt. of India Act of 1919

Correct Answer is option [C]

Which one of the following Acts of British India strengthened the Viceroy’s authority over his executive council by substituting ‘Portfolio’ or departmental system for corporate functioning?

(a) Indian Councils Act, 1861

(b) Government of India Act, 1858

(c) Indian Council Act, 1892

(d) Indian Council Act, 1909

Correct Answer is option [A]

Who presided over inaugural session of the Constituent Assembly?

(a) C. Rajagopalachari

(b) Jawaharlal Nehru

(c) Sachidanand Sinha

(d) B. R. Ambedkar

Correct Answer is option [C]

The real intention of British to include the princely states in Federal Union proposed by the Indian Act of 1935 was to

(a) Exercise more and direct political and administrative control over the princely states

(b) Involve the princes actively in the administration of the colony

(c) Finally effect the complete and administrative take-over of all the princely states by the British

(d) Use the princes to counter-balance the anti-imperialist doctrines of the nationalist leaders

Correct Answer is option [C] 

Time taken by Constituent Assembly to prepare the Indian Constitution was

(a) 3 years 7 months

(b) 2 years 11 months 18 days

(c) 2 years 10 months 11 days

(d) 3 years 2 months 18 days

Correct Answer is option [B] 

Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly

(a) B. R. Ambedkar

(b) J. L. Nehru

(c) K. M. Munshi

(d) S. N. Sinha

Correct Answer is option [A] 

Indian Constitution has adopted many provisions from the Constitutions of other countries. Indian Constitution is termed as for this.

(a) Lifted constitution

(b) Cluster of provisions

(c) A bag of borrowings

(d) None of above

Correct Answer is option [C]

Which of the following subjects is not included in the 11th Schedule of Indian Constitution?

(a) Drinking Water

(b) Prevention of Cruelty to Animals

(c) Libraries

(d) Markets and Fairs

Correct Answer is option [B] 

A member of the Council of Ministers can be asked to tender his
resignation if he loses the confidence of:
(a) The Governor
(b) The State Legislature
(c) The Chief Minister
(d) The High Court correct

Answer : c 

Q. No. 2: The Governor of a State is appointed by:
(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The President
(c) The President on the recommendation of the Central Council of Ministers
(d) The President on the adviceof the Chief Minister of the State

Answer : B

Q. No. 3 Which one of the following methods for the retirement of the
members of the Legislative Council is correct?
(a) All the members retire simultaneously
(b) One-third members retire every two years
(c) One-fourth members ret,;e after every two years
(d) One- half members retire after every two years

Answer : b 

Q. No. 4 The membership of a State Legislative Assembly generally ranges
between:
(a) 60 and 500
(b) 250 and 500
(c) 100 and 200
(d) 700 and 100

Answer : a 

Q. No. 5 Can one person act as Governor of more than one state?
(a) Yes
(b) No

(c) Only for a period of six months

(d) Only for period of three months

Answer : a 

Q. No. 6 The term of the office of Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is :
(a) 5 years
(b) 6 years
(c) 10 years
(d) 12 years

Answer : b 

Q. No. 7 To whom -does the Vice-President address his resignation?
(a) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) The President
(c) The Minister of Home Affairs
(d) The Chile Justice correct

Answer : b 

Q. No. 8 The disputes regarding the election of the President are decided
by:
(a) The Supreme Court of India
(b) The Parliament
(c) The Election Commission
(d) The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India

Answer : a 

Q. No. 9 If there is any disagreement between the Rajya Sabha and the Lok
Sabha over a bill, the President will convene a joint sitting of both Houses of
the Parliament under Article:
(a) 107
(b) 109
(c) 111
(d) 108

Answer : d 

Q. No. 10 The position of the President of India is analogous to:
(a) The Queen of United Kingdom
(b) The President of United States
(c) The Governor-General of Canada
(d) The President of Bangladesh

Answer : a 

Q. No. 11 The joint sitting of Indian Parliament for transacting a legislative business is
presided over by:
(a) The President of India
(b) Seniormost member of the Parliament
(c) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Answer : d 

Q. No. 12 The President is empowered to dissolve:
(a) Only Lok Sabha
(b) Only Rajya Sabha
(c) Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(d) None of the above

 Answer : a 

Q. No. 13 Who administers the oath of office to the President?
(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The Vice-President
(c) The Chief Election Commissioner
(d) The Chief-Justice of India

Answer : d 

Q. No. 14 If the President wants to resign, he has to address the letter of resignation to
the:
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Vice-President
(c) Speaker
(d) Chief Justice of India

Answer : b 

1. The current Lok Sabha is the...

A. 14th Lok Sabha

B. 15th Lok Sabha

C.10th LokSabha

D. 9th LokSabha

Answer: B. 15th Lok Sabha

2. The members of Lok Sabha hold office for the term of

A. 4 Years

B. 3 Years

C. 5 Years

D. 2 Years

Answer: C 5 years 

3. The minimum age to be eligible for an election for the Lok Sabha is

A. 18

B. 25

C) 24

D. None of the above

Answer: B 25 

4. The Council of States in India is generally known as:

A. Lok Sabha

B. Vidhan Sabha 

C. Rajya Sabha

D. None of the above

Answer: C Rajya Sabha 

5. Who Elect the members of the Rajya Sabha

A. Members of Rajya Sabha

B. Direct People of India

C. Elected members of the legislative assembly

D. All of the above are correct

Answer: C Elected members of the legislative assembly

6. The members of the Rajya Sabha are chosen for the term

A. Six Years

B. Five Years

C. Two Years

D. Four Years

Answer: A Six years 

7. The First Lok Sabha commenced in which year:

A. 1956

B. 1949

C. 1948

D. 1947

Answer: D 1947 

8. The Lok Sabha is also known as:

A. Vidhan Sabha

B. The House of the People

C. Rajya Sabha

D. Lower House

Answer: B The House of the People

9. The members of Lok Sabha hold office for a term of

A.   2 Years

B. 6 Years

C. 3 Years

D. 5 Years

Answer: D. 5 years

10. The minimum age for a person to become a member of the Rajya Sabha is

A. 31 Years

B.   30 Years

C. 32 Years

D. 33 Years

 Answer: 30 Years 

1. The council of Ministers of the National Capital Territory of Delhi shall consist of not more than...

A. 10 Ministers

B. 5 Ministers

C. 12 Ministers

D. None of the above

Correct answer - A 10 Ministers

2. District Judges in a State are appointed by the...

A. President

B. The prime minister of India

C. Governor

D. Chief Minister of the state

Correct answer - C. Governor

3. According to the provisions of the Constitution, the administrative control (posting, promotion, leave, etc.) over the district courts and other subordinate courts, shall be vested in the...

A. The Supreme Court of India

B. High Court

C. District court

D. none of the above

Correct answer - B High Court

4. If a stay order has been granted by the High Court in a case, the application of the affected party by such an order shall be disposed of by the High Court within a period of...

A.  2 week

B.  5 week

C.  4 week

D.  10 week

Answer - A 2 week

5. The power to make rules for the transaction of the business of the Government of Indian and for the allocation of business among Ministers lies with the...

A.  Prime Minister

B.  President

C.  Governor

D.  Chief Justice of India 

Answer - B President

6. Which Union territory sends its members to the Council of States? .....

A.  Maharashtra and Goa 

B.  Pondicherry and Delhi

C.  Himachal Pradesh

D.  Uttar Pradesh

Answer - B Pondicherry and Delhi

7. According to Article 243 of the Constitution, the Panchayats at the intermediate level may not be constituted in a state which has a population...

A. Not exceeding Bank 50 lakh

B. Not exceeding the 30 lakh

C. Not exceeding 20 lakh

D.  None of the above

Answer - C Not exceeding 20 lakh

8. The power to determine the number of judges in a High Court lies with the...

A. The Prime Minister of India

B. President of India

C. Governor of India

D.  Chief Justice of India

Answer - B President of India

9. How many members are nominated by the Governor in the Legislative Council of a State?

A. 1/12 of the total membership

B. 1/5 of the total membership

C. 1/4 of the total membership

D.  None of the above

Answer - A 1/12 of the total membership

21. Money Bill 

(a) cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha 
(b) has to be certified by the President 
(c) can be amended by the Council of States
(d) both (a) and (b) 
Answer.(a)

22. Amendments cannot be put up in either House to 

(a) Annual Financial Statement 
(b) Appropriation Bill 
(c) Demand for grants 
(d) Any of the above 
Answer.(b) 

23. Privileges of the members of Parliament include: 

(a) Freedom from arrest in all cases 
(b) Freedom of attendance as witness if Parliament is in session 
(c) Total freedom of speech 
(d) All of the above 
Answer.(b)

24. Parliament does not have the power to remove: 

(a) Comptroller and Auditor General 
(b) Supreme Court Judges 
(c) Chairman of UPSC 
(d) High Court Judges 
Answer.(c)

25. _____ is not a Financial Committee of the Parliament 

(a) Public Accounts Committee 
(b) Estimates Committee 
(c) Committee on Public Under-takings 
(d) Rules Committee 
Answer.(d)

26. Members of Rajya Sabha are: 

(a) Elected indirectly 
(b) All are nominated 
(c) Elected both directly and indirectly 
(d) Elected by members of State Legislative assemblies and Legislative Councils 
Answer.(c) 

27. A dissolution does not affect: 

(a) A bill that originated in the Rajya Sabha and is with Lok Sabha the President calls upon it to do so 
(b) Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by simple majority that it is necessary in national interest 
(c) Speaker certifies the need 
(d) There is a national emergency 
Answer.(b) 

28. Parliament can legislate on a subject in the State List if: 

(a) The President calls upon it to do so 
(b) Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by simple majority that it is necessary in national interest 
(c) Speaker certifies the need 
(d) There is a national emergency 
Answer.(d)

29. A No-Confidence Motion: 

(a) is expressed against an individual minister or council of ministers 
(b) no grounds are needed. 
(c) 100 members’have to support it 
(d) always against the Prime Minister 
Answer.(b)

30. ______ ensures that no unauthorized money is spent out of the Consolidated Fund of a State. 

(a) Public Accounts Committee 
(b) Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
(c) Finance Commission 
(d) None of the above 
Answer.(b)

31. If the Prime Minister of India Belonged to the Upper House of Parliament 

(a) he will not vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion 
(b) he will not speak on the budget in the Rajya Sabha 
(c) he can make statements only in the Lok Sabha 
(d) he has to become a member of the Lower House within 6 months after being sworn as the Prime Minister 
Answer.(a) 

32. Which duty is not performed by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India? 

(a) Expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India 
(b) Expenditure from the Contingency Funds and Public Accounts 
(c) Trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts 
(d) Receipt and issue of public money, and to ensure that public revenue is lodged in the exchequer 
Answer.(d) 

33. Parliament can legislate for the country or part of it for implementation of international treaties. For this consent of all the: 

(a) States is required 
(b) State/ States concerned needs to be taken 
(c) Legislation has to be ratified by at least half of the States of India 
(d) No consent is required 
Answer.(d) 

34. Among the following Presidents of India, who was also the Secretary General of Non-Aligned Movement for some period ? 

(a) Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan 
(b) Varahagiri Venkatagiri 
(c) Giani Zail Singh 
(d) Dr. Shanker Dayal Sharma 
Answer.(c) 

35. Which one of the following devices calls the attention of minister towards a matter of public importance? 

(a) Half-an-hour discussion 
(b) Calling attention notice 
(c) Short duration discussion 
(d) Adjournment motion 
Answer.(b) 

36. Which of the following is not a condition of admissibility of cut motions in the Parliament? 

(a) It should not make suggestions for the amendment of existing laws. 
(b) It should not relate to expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. 
(c) It should relate to more than one demand. 
(d) It should not raise a question of privilege. 
Answer.(c) 

37. Which of the following statements about President’s ordinance-making power is not correct? 

(a) It is co-extensive with legislative power of Parliament. 
(b) Laid down in Article 123. 
(c) Shall cease to operate on expiry of six weeks from the reassembly of the Parliament.
(d) Cannot be withdrawn at any time by the President. 
Answer.(d)

38. The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of : 

(a) Members of Parliament and state legislatures 
(b) Elected members of Parliament and state legislatures 
(c) Elected members of Parliament and state legislative assemblies 
(d) Elected members of Lok Sabha and members of Rajya Sabha and state Legislative Assemblies 
Answer.(c)

39. Disqualification on grounds of defection for a member of Parliament will not apply 

(a) in case of a split in the original political party to which he is elected 
(b) if he has voluntarily given up his membership of a political party 
(c) if the abstains from voting in the house contrary to the direction of the political party 
(d) if a nominated member of a house joins a political party after 6 months 
Answer.(a)

40. The Rajya Sabha has exclusive jurisdiction in 

(a) approving a proclamation of emergency 
(b) the creation and abolition of states 
(c) the election of the Vice-President 
(d) authorizing Parliament to legislate on a subject in the state list 
 Answer.(d)

41. The Vice-President of India can be removed from the office 

(a) by a resolution initiated in the council of states and approved by the Lok Sabha 
(b) by a resolution in the Lok Sabha agreed by the council of states 
(c) by a resolution adopted by the two house meeting in a joint session 
(d) by following a formal process of impeachment 

Answer.(a)

42. According to Art. 81 of the Constitution, as amended by the 87th Amendment, the population figures to be considered for dividing each state into territorial constituencies for Lok Sabha elections are of ____ census 

(a) 1971 
(b) 2001 
(c) 1991 
(d) 2011 
Answer.(c)

43. The amendment of the Constitution can be initiated in 

(a) the Lok Sabha only 
(b) the Rajya Sabha only 
(c) the Legislative Assemblies of states 
(d) either house of the Parliament 
 
Answer.(d)

Multiple choice questions on Constitution based on Articles 5 to 11

1.As far as Armed Forces are concerned, the fundamental rights granted under Articles 14 and 19 of the Constitution are:
(a) not available at all
(b) available to armed forces but not to other forces
(c) available only at the discretion of the chief of army staff
(d) available only according to law made by Parliament

Answer: (d)

2. Right to education is a fundamental right emanating from right to :
(a) freedom of speech and expression under Article 19 (1) (a)
(b) culture and education under Articles 29 and 30
(c) life and personal liberty under Article 21

(d) equality before law and equal protection of law under Article 14

 Answer: (c)

3. The Constitution names our country as :
(a) Bharat
(b) India, that is Bharat
(c) Hindustan
(d) Aryavarta

Answer: (b) 

4. The Constitution provides that Hindi shall be:
(a) the national language of India
(b) the language of communication between the State Governments
(c) the official language of the Union of India
(d) the language of communication between the Union Government and the State Governments

Answer: (c)

5.What is the minimum permissible age for employment in any factory or mine?
(a) 12 years
(b) 14 years
(c) 16 years
(d) 18 years

Answer: (b)

6. Which of the following is not a condition for becoming a citizen of India?
(a) Birth
(b) Acquiring property
(c) Descent
(d) Naturalisation

Answer: (b)

7. Who is competent to prescribe conditions as for acquiring Indian citizenship?
(a) Parliament
(b) State Legislatures
(c) President
(d) Attorney General

Answer: (a)

8. Which of the following statements regarding the acquisition of Indian citizenship is correct ?
(a) If citizenship is to be acquired by registration, six months residence in India is essential.
(b) If citizenship is to be acquired by naturalisation the person concerned must have resided in India for 5 years.
(c) If born in India, only that person can acquire citizenship at least one of whose parents is an Indian.
(d) Rules regarding the citizenship of India shall not be applicable to Jammu and Kashmir.

 Answer: (c)

9. According to the Citizenship Act, 1955, Indian citizenship cannot be acquired by:
(a) children of the diplomatic personnel or alien enemies born in India on or after 26th January, 1950
(b) children born of Indian citizens abroad
(c) incorporation of territory not forming part of India at the commencement of the Constitution
(d) naturalization

Answer: (a) 

10. Citizenship provisions are enshrined in the Constitution in :
(a) Part II
(b) Part II, Articles 5-11
(c) Part II, Articles 5-6
(d) Part I, Articles 5-11

Answer: (b) 

11. Which of the following Articles describes about the person voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign state not to be citizens?
(a) Article 5
(b) Article 7
(c) Article 8
(d) Article 9

Answer: (d) 

12. Article 6 enshrines the provision conferring Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to India from Pakistan. Which one of the following provisions is incorrect?
(a) He or either of his parents or any of his grand-parents was born in India as defined in the Government of India Act, 1935
(b) Such person has so migrated before 19 July, 1948
(c) Such person has so migrated on or after the 19 July, 1948, he has been registered as a citizen
(d) Such person has got married in India

Answer: (a)

13. Details on how citizenship may be acquired and terminated are enumerated in:
(a) Part II of the Constitution
(b) the Citizenship Act, 1955
(c) Schedule I of the Constitution
(d) various enactments by Parliament

Answer: (b)

14. Indian citizenship of a person can be terminated if:
I. A person voluntarily acquires the citizenship of some other country.
II. A person who has become a citizen through registration is sentenced to imprisonment for not less than 10 years within five years of his registration.
III. The Government of India is satisfied that citizenship was obtained by fraud.
IV. A person who is a citizen by birth indulges in trade with an enemy country during war.
(a) I and III
(b) I, II and III
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV

Answer: (c) 

15. A person can become a citizen of India even if born outside India if his/her:
(a) father is a citizen of India
(b) mother is a citizen of India
(c) father is a citizen of India at the time of the person's birth
(d) father or mother is a citizen of India at the time of the person's birth

Answer: (d)

16. To acquire citizenship by registration a person must have been resident in India for ______ immediately before making an application:
(a) six months
(b) one year
(c) three years
(d) five years

Answer: (d)

1. Under which Article of the Constitution are the Cultural and Educational Rights granted? 
(a) Article 29 and 31 
(b) Article 29 and 32 
(c) Article 29 and 30 
(d) Article 30 and 31
Answer: (c)

2. Which of the following is not specifically mentioned in Article 19 of the Constitution? 
(a) Freedom of speech and expression 
(b) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms 
(c) Freedom to move freely 
(d) Freedom of the press
Answer: (d)

3. Right to Constitutional Remedies comes under: 
(a) Fundamental Rights 
(b) Legal Rights 
(c) Constitutional Rights 
(d) Natural Rights
Answer: (a)

4. If an Indian citizen is denied a public office because of his religion, which of the following Fundamental Rights is denied to him? 
(a) Right to Freedom 
(b) Right to Equality 
(c) Right to Freedom of Religion 
(d) Right against Exploitation
Answer: (b)

5. Fundamental Freedoms under Article 19 are suspended during emergency caused by: 
(a) war or external aggression 
(b) failure of constitutional machinery of a State 
(c) internal armed rebellion 
(d) financial crisis
Answer: (a)

6. The theory of Fundamental Rights implies: 
(a) sovereignty of the people 
(b) equality of opportunity for all 
(c) limited government 
(d) equality of all before law
Answer: (c)

7. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion etc. (Article 15 of the Constitution of India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under: 
(a) the Right to Freedom of Religion 
(b) the Right against Exploitation 
(c) the Cultural and Educational Rights 
(d) the Right to Equality
Answer: (d)

8. Any dispute regarding the violation of Fundamental Rights can be presented : 
(a) in the Supreme Court only
(b) in the High Court only 
(c) either in the Supreme Court or in the High Court 
(d) first in the Supreme Court and then in the High Court
Answer: (c)

9. Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy? 

1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour 
2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health. 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) Both 1 and 2 
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)

10. Indian Constitution recognises minorities on the basis of: 
(a) religion 
(b) caste 
(c) population 
(d) colour
Answer: (a)

11. The Fundamental individual are: (a) limited to the State action only (b) meant to protect persons against the conduct of private persons (c) meant to protect persons against the police action (d) All of the above are correct
Answer: (d)
12. Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of law to : (a) all persons living within the territory of India (b) all Indian citizens living in India (c) all persons domiciled in India (d) all persons natural as well as artificial
Answer: (a)
13. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains special provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several States? (a) Third (b) Fifth (c) Seventh (d) Ninth
Answer: (b)
14. Untouchability is abolished and its practice is punishable according to : (a) Article 15 (b) Article 16 (c) Article 17 (d) Article 15(4)
Answer: (c)
15. Which one is not correctly matched? (a) Freedom of speech and expression - Include freedom of press (b) Freedom of conscience - Include right to wear and carry kirpans by Sikhs (c) Right to Personal liberty - Include right to carry on any trade or business (d) Right to Equality - Include principles of natural justice
Answer: (c)
1.The Constitution of India borrowed the scheme of Indian Federation from the Constitution of: (a) USA (b) Canada (c) Ireland (d) UK
[read more] Answer: (b) [/read] 2.The Indian Constitution closely follows the constitutional system of: (a) USA (b) UK (c) Switzerland (d) Russia
[read more] Answer: (b)[/read]
3.Which of the following is a feature common to both the Indian Federation and the American Federation? (a) A single citizenship (b) Dual Judiciary (c) Three lists in the Constitution (d) A Federal Supreme Court to interpret the Constitution
[read more] Answer: (d)[/read]
4.The inspiration of 'Liberty, Equality and Fraternity' was derived from: (a) American revolution (b) French revolution (c) Russian revolution (d) None of the above
[read more] Answer: (b)[/read]
5. Indian President and Prime Minister are a replica of the heads of the State of which country ? (a) Britain (b) USA (c) Ireland (d) Russia
[read more] Answer: (a)[/read]
6. The President of the Indian Union has the same constitutional authority as the: (a) British Monarch (b) President of USA (c) President of Egypt (d) President of Russia
[read more] Answer: (a)[/read]
7. Which of the following describes India as a Secular State? (a) Fundamental Rights (b) Ninth Schedule (c) Directive Principles (d) Preamble to the Constitution
[read more] Answer: (d)[/read]
8. In a parliamentary form of government, real powers of the State are vested in the: (a) Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister (b) President (c) Government (d) Parliament
[read more] Answer: (a)[/read]
9. Which of the following is not a basic feature of the Indian Constitution? (a) Presidential Government (b) Parliamentary Government (c) Federal Government (d) Independence of Judiciary
[read more] Answer: (a)[/read]
10. Which of the following is a feature of the Parliamentary form of government? (a) Executive is responsible to Judiciary (b) Executive is responsible to Legislature (c) Judiciary is responsible to Executive (d) Legislature is responsible to Executive
[read more] Answer:(b)[/read]
11. Match the following: Constitutional Provisions Sources A. Federation 1. USA B. Parliamentary 2. Britain C. Directive Principle 3. Canada D. Fundamental Rights 4. Ireland A B C D (a) 2 1 4 1 (b) 2 3 1 4 (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 3 2 4 1
[read more] Answer:(d)[/read]
12. Which of the following features does the Indian Constitution borrow from the Weimar Constitution of Germany? (a) The idea of a federation with a strong centre (b) The method of presidential election (c) The Emergency powers (d) Provisions concerning the suspension of fundamental rights during National Emergency
[read more] Answer: (D)[/read]
13. Match the following: Constitutional Features Sources A. Rule of Law 1. German Constitution B. Directive Principles 2. Australian Constitution C. Concurrent List 3. Irish Constitution D. Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency 4. British Constitution.
A B C D (a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 2 1 4 3
[read more] Answer: (b)[/read]
14. Which of the following features and their source is wrongly matched? (a) Judicial review – British practice (b) Concurrent List – Australian Constitution (c) Directive Principles – Irish Constitution (d) Fundamental Rights – US Constitution
[read more]Answer: (a)[/read]
15. Which Constitution has inspired the Indian concepts of rule of law, parliamentary system and law-making procedure? (a) US Constitution (b) British Constitution (c) Canadian Constitution (d) All of the above
[read more] Answer: (a)[/read]
16. The Constitution of India is designed to work as a unitary government: (a) in normal times (b) in times of Emergency (c) when the Parliament so desires (d) at the will of the President
[read more] Answer: (b)[/read]
17. Which of the following features of the Constitution of India does not resemble the American Constitution? (a) Written Constitution (b) Federal form of government (c) Fundamental Rights (d) Parliamentary form of government
[read more] Answer: (d)[/read]
18. Which of the following emerges clearly from the Preamble? I. When the Constitution was enacted. II.The ideals that were to be achieved. III. The system of government IV. The source of authority (a) II, III and IV (b) I and II (c) I, II and III (d) I, II, III and IV
[read more] Answer: (d)[/read]
19. Which one of the following statements regarding the Preamble is correct? (a) It is not enforceable in a court of law (b) the Supreme Court has recently ruled that it is not a part of the Constitution (c) It has been amended twice (d) All the above are correct
[read more] Answer: (a)[/read]
20. The Indian Constitution has borrowed the ideas of Preamble from the: (a) Italian Constitution (b) Canadian Constitution (c) French Constitution (d) Constitution of USA
[read more] Answer: (d)[/read]
21. Secularism means: (a) suppression of all religions (b) freedom of worship to minorities (c) separation of religion from State (d) a system of political and social philosophy that does not favour any particular religious faith
[read more] Answer: (d)[/read]
22. In a Federal State: (a) States are more powerful than the Centre (b) Centre is more powerful than States (c) a Presidential form of government functions (d) Constitution effects division of powers between the Centre and States with safeguards against transgression of jurisdiction
[read more] Answer: (a)[/read]
23. India opted for a federal form of government because of: (a) vast-territory (b) cultural integration (c) linguistic and regional diversity (d) administrative convenience
[read more] Answer: (c)[/read]
24. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution reads: (a) We, the people of India – adopt, enact and give to India this Constitution' (b) We, the people of Constitutent Assembly –adopt, enact and give to India this Constitution (c) We, the citizens of India – adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution (d) We, the people of India – in our Constituent Assembly – adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution
[read more] Answer: (d)[/read]
25. Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) Preamble of the Constitution is the part of the Constitution and can be amended under Article 368 (b) Preamble of the Constitution is not a part of the Constitution and cannot be amended (c) Preamble is the part of the basic structure of the Constitution and can be amended only if no change in the basic structure is made (d) Preamble can be amended by Parliament simply by an objective Resolution
[read more] Answer: (c)[/read]
26. The word 'socialist secular' and 'unity and integrity of the Nation' were added to our Constitution by : (a) 42nd Amendment of the Constitution (b) 44th Amendment of the Constitution (c) 46th Amendment of the Constitution (d) None of the above
[read more] Answer: (a)[/read]
27. The Preamble of the Constitution of India envisages that: (a) it shall stand part of the Constitution (b) it could be abrogated or wiped out from the Constitution (c) it does not acknowledge, recognise or proclaim anything about the Constitution (d) it has separate entity in the Constitution
[read more] Answer: (d)[/read]
28. The correct nomenclature of India according to the Preamble is: (a) Sovereign, Secular, Democratic Republic (b) Sovereign, Democratic Republic (c) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic (d) Sovereign, Secular, Socialist Democracy
[read more] Answer: (c)[/read]
29. India is a democratic republic, because: (a) there is independence of judiciary (b) the Head of the State is elected by the people (c) there is distribution of powers between the Centre and the States (d) there is Parliamentary supremacy
[read more] Answer: (b)[/read]
30.The Preamble of our Constitution: (a) is a part of the Constitution (b) contains the spirit of the Constitution (c) is a limitation upon the granted power (d) None of the above
[read more] Answer: (b)[/read]

31. Which of the following is not a part of the Preamble to the Indian Constitution? 
(a) Secularism 
(b) Sociaiism 
(c) Democratic Republic 
(d) Federalism
Answer: (d)

32. The source of India's sovereignty lies in the: 
(a) President 
(b) Prime Minister 
(c) People of India 
(d) Preamble to the Constitution
[ Answer: (d)

33. Who among the following moved the Objectives Resolution which formed tile basis of the Preamble of the Constitution of India in the Constituent Assembly on Dec 13, 1946? 
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar 
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad 
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 
(d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
[Answer: (d)

34. Match List-l with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List-I - (Provision of the Constitution of India) 
A. Amendment of the Constitution 
B. Directive Principles 
C. Emergency Power of the President 
D. The Union-State Relationship List-II (Source) 

1. Constitution of Germany 
2. Constitution of Canada 
3. Constitution of South Africa 
4. Irish Constitution A B C D 

(a) 1 2 4 3 
(b) 3 4 1 2 
(c) 1 4 2 3 
(d) 3 1 4 2
Answer: (b)
35. The constitution of India is republican because it: 
(a) provides for an elected Parliament 
(b) provides for adult franchise 
(c) contains a bill of rights 
(d) has no hereditary elements
Answer: (d)


36. Which one among the following statements is not correct ? The word 'socialist' in the Preamble of the Constitution of India, read with 
(a) Article 39(d), would enable the Court to uphold the constitutionality of nationalization laws 
(b) Articles 14, would enable the Court to strike down a statute which failed to achieve the socialist goal to the fullest extent 
(c) Article 25, would enable the Court to ensure freedom guaranteed under that Article 
(d) Article 23, would enable the Court to reduce inequality in income and status
Answer: (c)

37. In India, the concept of single citizenship is adopted from-
(a) England 
(b) U.S.A. 
(c) Canada 
(d) France
Answer: (a)

38. The Indian Constitution comprises of: 
(a) 395 Articles, 22 Parts and 12 Schedules 
(b) 371 Articles, 21 Parts and 11 Schedules 
(c) 372 Articles, 20 Parts and 7 Schedules 
(d) 381 Articles, 23 Parts and 8 Schedules
Answer: (a)

39. From which of the countries, Constitution of India has adopted fundamental duties? (a) USA (b) Canada (c) Erstwhile USSR (d) UK
[read more] Answer: (c)[/read]

40. The word 'Socialist' was added to the Preamble, its main aim is to : 
(a) eliminate inequality in economic and political status 
(b) eliminate inequality in political and religious affairs 
(c) eliminate inequality in income and status and standards of life 
(d) eliminate class based society
 Answer: (a)

41. Which of the pairs is correctly matched? 
(a) Republic - Head of the State is hereditary Monarch 
(b) Sovereign - Constitution rests on people's will 
(c) Democratic - Constitution does not recognise legal supremacy of another country 
(d) Secular - State is without any religion of its own
Answer: (d)

42. The Preamble enshrines certain ideals that were first spelt out in: 
(a) the speech by Jawaharlal Nehru on the banks of Ravi when he called for Purna Swaraj 
(b) the Nehru Report 
(c) a resolution adopted at Karachi session of the Indian National Congress 
(d) the Objectives Resolution adopted by the Constituent Assembly
Answer: (d)

43.The part of the Constitution that reflects the mind and ideals of the framers is : 
(a) directive principles 
(b) fundamental rights 
(c) preamble 
(d) citizenship
Answer: (c)

44. Which of the following determines that the Indian Constitution is federal? 
(a) A written and rigid Constitution 
(b) An independent Judiciary 
(c) Vesting of residuary powers with the Centre 
(d) Distribution of powers between the Centre and States
Answer: (d)

45. The Indian Constitution is regarded as : 
(a) federal 
(b) unitary 
(c) parliamentary 
(d) federal in form and unitary in spirit 
 Ans: (d)

Post a Comment

0 Comments
* Please Don't Spam Here. All the Comments are Reviewed by Admin.

Top Post Ad

Below Post Ad

Ads Area